Uterine fibroid: from pathogenesis to clinical management – Multiple Choice Questions for Vol. 34






  • 1.

    The following is/are true regarding risk factors for the development of and severity of uterine fibroids?



    • a)

      Increasing parity is associated with reduced risk


    • b)

      African-American ethnicity is the single biggest recognized risk factor


    • c)

      There is a recognized association with later age of menarche


    • d)

      There is no recognized association with smoking


    • e)

      Vitamin D deficiency has been shown to increase the risk of fibroids



  • 2.

    Which of the following is/are considered modulators of the pathology associated with uterine leiomyomas but have yet to be proven as a causal agent in their genesis?



    • a)

      MicroRNAs


    • b)

      Methylation


    • c)

      Demethylation


    • d)

      Mediator complex subunit 12 (MED12)


    • e)

      RE1 transcription factor (REST)



  • 3.

    The following is/are true regarding African American women and fibroids



    • a)

      They have an observed six-fold greater prevalence of fibroids from 18–30 years of age compared to Caucasian women


    • b)

      They have been observed to develop symptoms 10–15 years earlier than Caucasian women of similar age


    • c)

      They are less likely to undergo hysterectomy due to cultural differences


    • d)

      They are less likely to undergo a minimally invasive approach


    • e)

      They are more likely to experience postoperative complications following surgery for uterine fibroids



  • 4.

    Which of the following strategies has been shown to arrest uterine fibroid growth?



    • a)

      Oestrogen antagonist action


    • b)

      Progesterone antagonist action


    • c)

      Ovarian removal


    • d)

      The combined oral contraceptive pill


    • e)

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues



  • 5.

    Which of the following factors inhibits leiomyoma cell proliferation?



    • a)

      Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)


    • b)

      Kruppel-like transcription factor 11 (KLF11)


    • c)

      Transforming growth factor β3 (TGFβ3)


    • d)

      Serine/threonine protein kinase B (AKT)


    • e)

      Epidermal growth factor (EGF)



  • 6.

    The following can be considered abnormal with which of the following bleeding patterns?



    • a)

      21 day cycle


    • b)

      38 day cycle


    • c)

      Menses lasting 8 days


    • d)

      Monthly blood loss of 100ml


    • e)

      Excessive bleeding that interferes with maternal quality of life



  • 7.

    Regarding PALM COEIN – there is commonality with regard to risk factors for fibroids with which of the following other causes of AUB?



    • a)

      Polyps


    • b)

      Adenomyosis


    • c)

      Malignancy


    • d)

      Coagulopathy


    • e)

      Ovulatory dysfunction



  • 8.

    Factors identified in the literature to date as potentially contributing to AUB in the context of fibroids include which of the following?



    • a)

      Increased vascular flow


    • b)

      Increased plasminogen-activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)


    • c)

      Increased transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)


    • d)

      Submucosal fibroids


    • e)

      Increased anti-thrombin III



  • 9.

    Regarding growth factors, which of the following is/are true?



    • a)

      Activin-A is a member of the EGF family of growth factors


    • b)

      They are not influenced by ovarian hormones


    • c)

      They are expressed differently in normal myometrium and uterine leiomyomas


    • d)

      They take part in the regulation of inflammation


    • e)

      They take part in the regulation of fibrosis



  • 10.

    Which of the following is/are true regarding medical treatments for uterine leiomyomas?



    • a)

      They have anti-proliferative effects


    • b)

      They have anti-fibrotic effects


    • c)

      They reduce extracellular matrix production


    • d)

      They target growth factors and their signaling


    • e)

      They regulate angiogenesis



  • 11.

    At Ultrasound examination which of the following is/are typical of fibroid appearance?



    • a)

      Round solid lesions


    • b)

      Inhomogenous echotexture


    • c)

      Characteristic stripes


    • d)

      Acoustic shadowing


    • e)

      Poor peripheral vascularization



  • 12.

    Which parameters are considered fundamental in the evaluation of submucous myomas?



    • a)

      Grading


    • b)

      Minimal free myometrial margin


    • c)

      Percentage of intra-cavity growth


    • d)

      The presence of a spiral feeding vessel


    • e)

      The presence of acoustic shadowing



  • 13.

    Which features would be suspicious of a leiomyosarcoma?



    • a)

      Large solid myometrial mass


    • b)

      Rapid interval growth


    • c)

      Anechoic areas without shadowing


    • d)

      Myometrial lesion with radial stripes and vascular spaces


    • e)

      Rich vascularization



  • 14.

    Which of the following is/are indications for Magnetic Resonance Imaging?



    • a)

      Uncertain anatomical origin of the mass


    • b)

      Uncertain histological origin of the mass


    • c)

      Uterus subverted by multiple myomas


    • d)

      Prior to embolization


    • e)

      When fertility preservation is the major issue



  • 15.

    Uterine fibroids increase the risk of fetal malpresentation by:



    • a)

      1.25 times


    • b)

      2.5 times


    • c)

      5 times


    • d)

      7.5 times


    • e)

      10 times



  • 16.

    The impact on pregnancy outcome is greater in cases with which of the following?



    • a)

      Submucous fibroids


    • b)

      Intramural fibroids


    • c)

      Subserous fibroids


    • d)

      Pedunculated fibroids


    • e)

      Ovarian fibroids



  • 17.

    Which of the following agents for medical treatment of fibroids has/have been shown to decrease bone mineral density if used long term?



    • a)

      Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills


    • b)

      LNG-IUS


    • c)

      GnRH analogues


    • d)

      Somatostatin analogues


    • e)

      Ulipristal acetate



  • 18.

    Which of the following forms of medical management have NOT been demonstrated to cause a reduction in leiomyoma size?



    • a)

      GnRH analogues


    • b)

      GnRH antagonists


    • c)

      Ulipristal acetate


    • d)

      LNG-IUS


    • e)

      Danazol



  • 19.

    Ulipristal acetate (UPA) is used for the preoperative management of reproductive aged women with symptomatic leiomyomas. Which of the following is/are true about UPA?



    • a)

      It reduces menstrual blood loss


    • b)

      It decreases fibroid volume


    • c)

      It causes physiologic endometrial changes


    • d)

      It is a synthetic steroid derived from 19-norprogesterone


    • e)

      It is approved in the U.S., Canada and Europe for the management of leiomyomas



  • 20.

    Which of the following forms of medical management for leiomyomas is/are classified as a selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM)?



    • a)

      Mifepristone


    • b)

      Asoprisnil


    • c)

      Telepristone


    • d)

      Ulipristal acetate


    • e)

      Pirfenidone



  • 21.

    Prior to laparoscopic myomectomy, gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) can be administrated 3 to 4 months before for which of the following reasons?



    • a)

      To reduce surgical difficulty


    • b)

      To reduce fibroid volume


    • c)

      To improve pre and post-operative haemoglobin


    • d)

      To change the initially predicted surgical route


    • e)

      To shorten operative time



  • 22.

    Regarding hysteroscopic myomectomy procedures, which of the following is/are true?



    • a)

      Cervical preparation with Misoprostol is associated with less operative complications


    • b)

      GnRH use is associated with a higher rate of complete resection of submucous myomas


    • c)

      The use of monopolar energy is associated with a higher rate of adverse events than bipolar energy


    • d)

      The use of anti-adhesion barriers following procedures is associated with a higher pregnancy rate


    • e)

      Resection of myomas over 6 cm in diameter is associated with more two-step resections



  • 23.

    Which is considered the gold standard treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids?



    • a)

      UAE


    • b)

      MRgFUS


    • c)

      Myomectomy


    • d)

      Vaginal occlusion of uterine arteries


    • e)

      Laparoscopic occlusion of uterine arteries



  • 24.

    Which of the following is/are true regarding uterine artery embolization?



    • a)

      It was first used in 2008


    • b)

      It is not yet approved by the United States FDA


    • c)

      It is indicated for pedunculated uterine fibroids


    • d)

      It is performed just in selected cases


    • e)

      It is suitable for all the patients that want to preserve their uterus



  • 25.

    The progressive shrinkage of a myomas treated with cryo-ablation goes up to how long post-procedure?



    • a)

      1 month


    • b)

      3 months


    • c)

      6 months


    • d)

      9 months


    • e)

      12 months



  • 26.

    Which of the following is a contraindication for MRgFUS?



    • a)

      Intramural fibroids


    • b)

      Being more than 40 years old


    • c)

      Abnormal uterine bleeding


    • d)

      Desire of future pregnancies


    • e)

      Less than three uterine fibroids



  • 27.

    Which of the following is/are true regarding case reports and series describing pregnancy following MRgFUS?



    • a)

      Of women treated less than 50% achieve pregnancy


    • b)

      The mean time to conception was >12 months


    • c)

      Live birth rates were in the order of 40%


    • d)

      The miscarriage rate was between 25–30%


    • e)

      Delivery was by LSCS in >50% of cases



  • 28.

    Which of the following is/are true regarding MRgFUS?



    • a)

      The effectiveness of the MRgFUS procedure can be determined by the non-perfused volume (NPV) ratio


    • b)

      The non-perfused volume (NPV) appears to correlate well with the volume of histological necrosis


    • c)

      MRI hypo-intense fibroids were associated with a reduced treatment success compared with hyper-intense fibroids


    • d)

      Relief of symptoms at 12 months follow up has been reported at over 85%


    • e)

      The most important limitation to its use is side effects



  • 29.

    Which of the following is/are considered a common complication after UAE?



    • a)

      Post-embolization syndrome


    • b)

      Septicaemia


    • c)

      Death


    • d)

      Mis-embolization


    • e)

      Haematoma



  • 30.

    Which of the following is/are features of post-embolization syndrome?



    • a)

      It occurs in over 50% of cases


    • b)

      Nausea without vomiting is a key feature


    • c)

      Low grade fever is a key feature


    • d)

      Leucocyte suppression is the key haematological finding


    • e)

      It will resolve within 48–72 hours in the majority



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Nov 6, 2017 | Posted by in OBSTETRICS | Comments Off on Uterine fibroid: from pathogenesis to clinical management – Multiple Choice Questions for Vol. 34

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