- 1.
Which of the following is true regarding the current role of molecular markers in cancer staging?
- a)
There is no clear and unanimous consensus on which prognostic biomarkers to include in cancer staging.
- b)
Numerous molecular markers are associated with poor clinical outcomes.
- c)
Numerous molecular markers are associated with favorable clinical outcomes.
- d)
Molecular markers are currently being used to help in staging classification of other cancers but not gynecologic cancers.
- e)
Molecular markers are currently being used in staging classification of most cancers, including gynecologic cancers.
- a)
- 2.
Which one of the following is/are proto-oncogene(s)?
- a)
PIK3CA
- b)
KRAS
- c)
P53
- d)
HER2
- e)
FGFR2
- a)
- 3.
Which of the following is/are true regarding molecular markers?
- a)
MEK (MAPK pathway) inhibitors are under evaluation in gynaecological cancer
- b)
Receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors are under evaluation in gynaecological cancer
- c)
Anti-VEGF monoclonal antibodies are under evaluation in gynaecological cancer
- d)
Molecular markers have the potential to improve classification of histologic subtypes
- e)
Molecular markers have the potential to predict risk of clinical outcome including progression-free and overall survival
- a)
- 4.
The new 2009 FIGO Staging for vulvar cancer has meant which of the following?
- a)
The definition of micro-invasive vulvar cancer has been changed
- b)
A significant number of patients will be down-staged
- c)
The number of patients with stage II disease will be increased
- d)
Patients with stage III disease will be a more homogeneous group
- e)
There is no longer a staging category for patients with bilaterally positive lymph nodes
- a)
- 5.
Survival of patients with vulvar cancer is worse in the presence of:
- a)
Lymph node metastases greater than 15 mm diameter
- b)
Bilaterally positive lymph nodes
- c)
More than 3 positive lymph nodes
- d)
Extra-capsular spread beyond the lymph node
- e)
Groin dissections performed through separate groin incisions
- a)
- 6.
Indications for radiation therapy in patients with vulvar cancer include:
- a)
Patients with one microscopically positive groin node (5 mm or less)
- b)
Patients with extra-capsular nodal spread
- c)
Patients with surgical margins around the primary tumour of less than 5 mm if there is no possibility of further surgical resection (e.g. too close to the anus)
- d)
Patients with palpably enlarged positive groin nodes prior to resection of the nodes
- e)
Patients with involvement of the anus
- a)
- 7.
Based on the GOG prospective study, which of the following is/are significant prognostic factors in patients with histologically confirmed stage I cervical cancer?
- a)
Age
- b)
Tumour size
- c)
LVSI
- d)
Node positivity
- e)
Performance status
- a)
- 8.
The following statement(s) is/are true with regard to vaginal cancer:
- a)
DES associated vaginal cancers are aggressive cancers
- b)
Majority of vaginal cancers are seen in the lower 1/3rd of the vagina and metastasize to unilateral pelvic nodes
- c)
The vagina has a complex network of lymphatics, therefore bilateral involvement of inguino-femoral lymph nodes may occur
- d)
Most vaginal cancers occur in the anterior vaginal wall
- e)
Urinary symptoms commonly occur in women with vaginal cancer
- a)
- 9.
In general, in situ and invasive vaginal cancers are associated with the same risk factors as cervical cancer. Which of the following statements is/are true?
- a)
Vaginal cancers occur more often only after surgical treatment of cervical cancer
- b)
After the treatment of VAIN vaginal cancers are uncommon and therefore follow-up may be discontinued after 3–5 years
- c)
High risk HPV infections are a risk factor in young women with squamous cell carcinoma of vagina
- d)
Smoking and alcohol have direct effects on vaginal cancer pathogenesis
- e)
DES associated vaginal cancers tend to have better prognosis
- a)
- 10.
Which of the following is/are true regarding lymph node metastasis in endometrial cancer?
- a)
It occurs in the majority of cases
- b)
It is one of the major prognostic factors in EC, regardless of the number of metastatic LNs
- c)
It is included in FIGO staging
- d)
It is rarely observed in the para-aortic area when the pelvic area is involved
- e)
Probability can accurately be predicted using dedicated scores
- a)
- 11.
Detection of metastatic lymph nodes:
- a)
Is mandatory before surgery for endometrial cancer
- b)
In the para aortic area does not require dissection above the inferior mesenteric artery since this location is infrequent
- c)
Can use sentinel lymph node biopsy in all risk groups to reduce complications associated with lymphadenectomy
- d)
Is accurate using 18F-FDG PET
- e)
Is accurate using MRI
- a)
- 12.
Removal of metastatic lymph nodes
- a)
Requires complete pelvic and para aortic lymphadenectomy as well as resection of deep inguinal nodes not to miss any of them
- b)
Is not mandatory in at least half of patients with presumed early stage EC
- c)
Should be performed systematically since LN status improves survival prediction
- d)
Could improve survival in intermediate and high risk groups
- e)
Is mandatory since this information is a determinant for the decision to deliver adjuvant chemotherapy
- a)
- 13.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about endometrial carcinoma?
- a)
It is not necessary to assess the status of pelvic and para-aortic lymph node in endometrial cancer
- b)
Lymph node dissection is considered as an important aspect of the management of endometrial cancer
- c)
Extensive lymph node dissection prolongs overall survival (OS) compared to fewer nodes removed
- d)
Incidence of lymph node metastasis are correlated with tumour size in endometrial cancer
- e)
Pelvic and para-aortic lymph node dissection does not lead to better OS
- a)
- 14.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about lymph node metastases?
- a)
Systematic lymphadenectomy is the standard technique used for resection of bulky lymph nodes
- b)
Pelvic and para-aortic lymph node dissection have become an important part of the surgical treatment of gynaecological cancers
- c)
Lymph node metastases either start there itself or cancer cells can spread to lymph nodes through the normal circulation of body fluid
- d)
As per FIGO, lymphatic spread has not been reported as a common feature of gynaecological cancers
- e)
Surgical debulking of enlarged lymph nodes would not be effective in chemo-radiation resistant lymph nodes
- a)
- 15.
The following features on de-bulking of lymph nodes can be interpreted as follows:
- a)
Resection of the bulky lymph nodes is not reported to be beneficial if the patients had clear cell histology, myometrial invasion (>50%) and large tumor (>2 cm in diameter)
- b)
The success rates with de-bulking depend on compliance, morbidity and survival rates in cancer patients
- c)
One of the most important prognostic factors for survival in women with cervical cancer are the status of lymph nodes
- d)
There are two basic approaches for de-bulking retroperitoneal nodes in cervical cancer
- e)
Pelvic and para-aortic lymph node dissection can help treatments like radiation or chemotherapy work better for gynaecological cancer
- a)
- 16.
The following features on involvement of lymph nodes can be interpreted as follows:
- a)
In patients with advanced ovarian cancer, retroperitoneal lymph node involvement is reported in 50–75% of patients
- b)
In early stage uterine leiomyosarcoma, the incidence of lymph node metastases has been shown to be approximately 3%
- c)
Pelvic disease control may reduce the risk of distant metastatic spread by 60–75%
- d)
Incidence of nodal metastases decreases with the increase in FIGO stage
- e)
Removal of positive bulky node along with cyto-reductive surgery does not offer survival benefits
- a)
- 17.
The following statement(s) is are true/false about stage I carcinoma of the ovary or fallopian tube:
- a)
“Surgical spill” (IC1) refers to a macroscopically recognizable intraoperative rupture of a tumour and requires a positive peritoneal cytology for malignant cells.
- b)
FIGO recommends performing peritoneal washing and cytological evaluation only when rupture of the tumour is noted.
- c)
This recommendation applies only to a rupture that occurred before the operation.
- d)
Positive peritoneal fluid is stage IC3 regardless of rupture.
- e)
Negative cytology in the initial peritoneal washing in a case of ruptured capsule before surgery can only be understood in the sense of failure to identify the presence of rare tumour cells.
- a)
- 18.
The following statement(s) is/are true/false about stage II carcinoma of the ovary or fallopian tube:
- a)
A tumor confined to one ovary showing dense fibrous adhesions with histologically proven tumour cells should be upgraded from stage I to stage II.
- b)
Stage II comprises approximately 30% of ovarian cancers.
- c)
Biologically, stage II carcinomas behave similar to stage III disease and it is only because of their anatomic location in the pelvis that they are designated stage II.
- d)
All stage II disease is treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.
- e)
Extension and/or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tubes/and/or ovaries with ascites or positive peritoneal washings is designated stage IIC
- a)
- 19.
Ovarian carcinomas extending beyond the pelvis with exclusively retroperitoneal lymph node involvement are currently classified as stage:
- a)
IIB
- b)
IIIA1
- c)
IIIA2
- d)
IIIB
- e)
IIIC
- a)
- 20.
The sentinel lymph node procedure is only recommended in well selected patients. Selection criteria include:
- a)
Primary squamous cell vulvar cancer with a depth of invasion > 1mm
- b)
Local recurrences < 4cm with previously a negative sentinel node
- c)
Uni-focal tumors
- d)
No clinically suspicious groin nodes
- e)
Enlarged lymph nodes excluded by preoperative imaging
- a)
- 21.
A patient with histologically proven squamous cell cancer of the vulva, 5cm in diameter and 5mm from the midline is best treated with:
- a)
Wide local excision only
- b)
Wide local excision with unilateral SN procedure
- c)
Wide local excision with bilateral SN procedure
- d)
Wide local excision with unilateral inguino-femoral lymphadenectomy
- e)
Wide local excision with bilateral inguino-femoral lymphadenectomy
- a)
- 22.
Which of the following is/are seen as a result of ultra-staging?
- a)
More metastases are diagnosed.
- b)
Smaller metastases are diagnosed.
- c)
More patients will be in stage III, from stage I
- d)
The prognosis of stage III increases
- e)
The prognosis of stage I decreases
- a)
- 23.
A 61 year old patient was treated with wide local excision and SN procedure in the left groin (tumor was lateralized, 2cm from midline). Pathology shows a squamous cell tumor of 19mm with a depth of invasion of 3mm. The removed sentinel node shows a metastases of 0.7mm, without extra-nodal tumor growth. What is the most appropriate advice on treatment?
- a)
Radiotherapy on left groin
- b)
Radiotherapy on both groins
- c)
Radiotherapy and on both groins and brachytherapy
- d)
Left inguino-femoral lymphadenectomy
- e)
Bilateral inguino-femoral lymphadenectomy
- a)
- 24.
In cervical cancer,
- a)
Lymphadenectomy is not necessary in stage 1a1 disease as the risk of lymph node metastasis is low.
- b)
There is high accuracy in CT, MRI and PET-CT for diagnosing lymph node metastasis.
- c)
Laparoscopic lymphadenectomy has proven to have a therapeutic value in late-stage cervical cancer.
- d)
The risk of isolated para-aortic lymph node metastasis is low and so routine para-aortic lymphadenectomy is not recommended.
- e)
Laparoscopic lymphadenectomy is important because if lymph node metastasis is found, the disease will be upstaged and systematic chemotherapy or extended radiotherapy may be needed.
- a)
- 25.
In endometrial cancer,
- a)
Systematic pelvic and para-aortic lymphadenectomy should only be performed in those with high-risk diseases.
- b)
Compared with laparotomy, the decrease in peri-operative complication rate in laparoscopy is mainly in the post-operative period.
- c)
There is no survival difference between laparoscopic and laparotomy surgery.
- d)
Single-port surgery is associated with higher conversion rate and more estimated blood loss than conventional laparoscopic surgery.
- e)
The lymphatic drainage of endometrial cancer is mainly through the cervix, parametria and pelvic lymph nodes.
- a)
- 26.
In ovarian cancer,
- a)
Laparoscopic surgery was associated with higher tumour rupture and spillage rate than laparotomy in early-stage ovarian cancer.
- b)
Tumour size, presence of adhesion and ascites are some of the laparoscopic parameters that can help to predict resectability in advanced ovarian cancer.
- c)
The incidence of port-site metastasis could be up to 30% even in early-stage ovarian cancer.
- d)
Advanced stage and ascites are risk factors for port-site metastasis after laparoscopic surgery.
- e)
There is level I evidence supporting the safety of laparoscopic surgery in early-stage ovarian cancer.
- a)
- 27.
Regarding newly developed technology on laparoscopic staging:
- a)
Robot-assisted surgery outperformed laparotomy by having less blood loss and shorter length of hospitalization.
- b)
Preliminary data showed that robot-assisted surgery might be safe in early-stage ovarian cancer.
- c)
The role of sentinel lymph node biopsy in endometrial cancer is still questionable.
- d)
The sensitivity of sentinel lymph node biopsy is higher for cervical cancer bigger than 2cm than for smaller tumours because the lymphatic channels are better developed in the former.
- e)
Although single-port surgery has similar peri-operative complication rates compared to laparoscopic surgery, the former is associated with fewer lymph nodes sampled and higher conversion rate.
- a)
- 28.
A 65 year old woman has been diagnosed to have free fluid in the abdomen. Contrast enhanced CT scan reveals an adnexal mass, ascites, diaphragmatic deposits, and omental caking. Her CA-125 is 546 u/ml. What would be the next most appropriate step?
- a)
Core biopsy from adnexal mass or from the omentum
- b)
Fine needle aspiration biopsy from the adnexal mass
- c)
Laparotomy and proceed
- d)
Diagnostic laparoscopy followed by laparotomy
- e)
Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy
- a)
- 29.
Which of the following is an appropriate indication for neo-adjuvant chemotherapy in a diagnosed case of epithelial ovarian cancer?
- a)
Massive right sided pleural effusion
- b)
Presence of omental caking on contrast enhanced CT scan
- c)
Obesity, BMI >30
- d)
High grade serous carcinoma
- e)
Known BRCA positive gene status
- a)
- 30.
A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed to have carcinoma of cervix FIGO stage IIB. What would be the recommended treatment for this?
- a)
Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy followed by radiation
- b)
Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy followed by concurrent chemo-radiation
- c)
Concurrent chemo-radiation
- d)
Radiation followed by chemotherapy
- e)
Radiation only
- a)