- 1.
The following statement(s) is/are correct concerning ovarian tissue cryopreservation and transplantation:
a) Ovarian tissue cryopreservation is the only current option for fertility preservation in children.
b) Heterotopic transplantation may be indicated if the pelvis is not suitable for transplantation due to previous radiation or severe scar formation
c) Cryopreservation of intact human ovary with its vascular pedicle is an effective means of fertility preservation in humans
d) Animal studies have demonstrated that GnRH agonist treatment does not prevent primordial follicle depletion after the xenografting of ovarian tissue with or without gonadotropin stimulation
e) The risk of ovarian metastasis is classified high in patients with leukemia.
- 2.
The following statement(s) is/are true about gonadotoxicity:
a) Cyclophosphamide is the most cytotoxic agent for gonads
b) Procarbazine is a chemotherapeutic agent that does not cause premature ovarian failure (POF).
c) Methotrexate is considered to be low risk for gonadal dysfunction.
d) Abdominal radiation is less toxic than chemotherapy.
e) Bone marrow transplantation is the treatment posing the greatest risk of POF.
- 3.
Which fertility preservation option could be proposed to a 6-year-old girl diagnosed with thalassemia major, prior to bone marrow transplantation?
a) embryo cryopreservation
b) ovarian stimulation with oocyte cryopreservation
c) ovarian cortical fragments cryopreservation
d) whole ovary cryopreservation
e) in vitro maturation
- 4.
Which fertility preservation option could be proposed to a 22-year-old woman diagnosed with leukemia, prior to chemotherapy?
a) embryo cryopreservation
b) ovarian stimulation with oocyte cryopreservation
c) ovarian cortical fragments cryopreservation
d) whole ovary cryopreservation
e) in vitro maturation
- 5.
In case of premature ovarian failure (POF) in a patient with stored ovarian tissue who wishes to undergo ovarian tissue transplantation:
a) ovarian tissue transplantation is not a safe option after Hodgkins lymphoma.
b) orthotopic ovarian fragment transplantation is the most effective way to restore fertility.
c) heterotopic transplantation may restore endocrine function, but not natural fertility.
d) ovarian fragment transplantation can be proposed if the patient is cured of leukemia.
e) whole ovary transplantation has the highest success rate.
- 6.
Concerning the administration of chemotherapy, the following statement(s) is/are true:
a) All cytotoxic drugs can be used after the first trimester of pregnancy
b) Chemotherapy is best avoided after 35 weeks of pregnancy
c) Dosages of chemotherapy should be higher during pregnancy
d) Administration of chemotherapy during the second or third trimester increases the incidence of congenital malformations
e) The placenta is a barrier that protects the fetus
- 7.
Concerning surgery during pregnancy, the following statements are true:
a) Pregnant patients should be positioned in left lateral tilt.
b) Pregnant women have an increased risk of post-surgery thrombosis.
c) Pregnant women should not have strong painkillers post-surgery.
d) Laparoscopy should be avoided during pregnancy.
e) The preferred timing for surgery in pregnancy is the second trimester.
- 8.
Concerning the impact of chemotherapy on the fetus /neonate / child, the following statement(s) is/are true:
a) Chemotherapy during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy alters the development and neurological, psychological performance of the children
b) Anthracyclines administered during pregnancy affect fetal and neonatal cardiac development
c) Chemotherapy during the second and third trimester does not increase the rate of fetal malformations during the pregnancy
d) Postnatal pancytopenia may occur after administration of chemotherapy during pregnancy
e) The birth weight is lower when the children have been exposed to chemotherapy during pregnancy
- 9.
Concerning pre-invasive lesions of the cervix during pregnancy, the following statement(s) is/are true:
a) The incidence of pre-invasive lesions during pregnancy are extremely rare
b) The diagnosis of pre-invasive lesions by colposcopy and cytology is more difficult during pregnancy
c) Biopsy of the cervix should be avoided because of the high risk of bleeding and miscarriage
d) CIN tends to progress more rapidly during pregnancy
e) Conisation is preferably performed in the third trimester
- 10.
The following is/are true concerning Doxorubicin and amenorrhea:
a) Amenorrhoea is more likely in reduced doses
b) Doxorubicin based chemotherapy causes amenorrhea in almost 60%
c) Amenorrhoea is more likely with added fluorouracil and cyclophosphamide
d) Is less likely in young patients
e) Amenorrhoea in older women is usually permanent
- 11.
In women younger than 35 years, chemotherapy is likely to induce:
a) Temporary amenorrhea
b) Permanent amenorrhea
c) Menorrhagia
d) Irreversible anovulation
e) Hot flushes and night sweats
- 12.
Aromatase inhibitors induce:
a) multiple ovulations
b) one ovulation
c) permanent amenorrhea
d) anovulatory cycles
e) irreversible anovulation
- 13.
Tamoxifen therapy:
a) is used when estrogen receptors (ER) and progesterone receptors (PR) are negative
b) is never used with GnRH analogues
c) should be continued for 2 years
d) may induce hot flushes
e) is safe for the embryo if a pregnancy occurs
- 14.
Concerning the use of ionizing radiation during pregnancy, the following statement(s) is/are true:
a) Diagnostic procedures with an associated radiation dose of less than 100 mSv cause no direct measurable harmful effects.
b) The ALARA principle means that all radiation doses should be avoided.
c) Standard guidelines exist on the performance and acquisition parameters for diagnostic procedures in pregnant patients
d) Radiotherapy is always to be avoided during pregnancy
e) Iodinated and gadolinium contrast media can safely be used
- 15.
Which of the following tumour types are associated with endometriosis associated ovarian cancer?
a) Epithelial endometrioid
b) Germ cell tumors
c) Clear cell carcinoma
d) Granulosa cell tumors
e) Theca-stroma cell tumors
- 16.
Common genetic alterations in endometriosis and ovarian cancer include:
a) Over-expression of the Bcl gene
b) Decreased expression of the Bax gene
c) Over-expression of the Bax gene
d) PTEN inactivating mutations
e) P53 inactivating mutations
- 17.
The risk for subsequent development of breast cancer in women with endometriosis is increased in:
a) Multiparous women
b) Women over the age of 40
c) Women with severe (stage IV) endometriosis
d) Women that had fertility treatments and conceived.
e) Women who received treatment with GnRH analogues
- 18.
Ovarian cancers in germline mutation BRCA1 carriers are commonly associated with:
a) A strong family history of breast cancer
b) Mucinous tumours
c) High stage
d) Poor response to platinum chemotherapy
e) Family history of male breast cancer
- 19.
With regards to management of women with a BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation, which of the following statement(s) is/are true:
a) Prophylactic oophorectomy totally removes cancer risk
b) Prophylactic oophorectomy reduces breast cancer risk in all carriers by 50%
c) Following prophylactic oophorectomy, HRT is contraindicated
d) Ovarian screening should be performed yearly with TVUS
e) Breast screening should be carried out in accordance with the National Breast screening programme
- 20.
The following statement(s) regarding ovarian cancer susceptibility genes is/are true:
a) Direct sequencing is used to detect all mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2
b) Pathogenic mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 are mainly protein truncating mutations
c) Mutation analysis should be performed in families with a 20% chance of detecting mutation
d) Mutation analysis is only undertaken on individuals affected with cancer
e) Individuals with variants of unknown significance should have PBSO
- 21.
The following are strong predictors (>20%) of germline mutation in the MMR gene:
a) Amsterdam positive family history
b) Synchronous colon and endometrial cancer
c) Early onset endometrial cancer in a woman with no family history of LS cancers.
d) Synchronous endometrial and ovarian cancer
e) MSI in a colon tumour from an individual with FH colon cancer
- 22.
The following are components of the metabolic syndrome:
a) Hyperinsulinaemia
b) Hypertension
c) High high-density lipoprotein cholesterol
d) Hyperglycaemia
e) Breast Cancer
- 23.
Polycystic ovary syndrome:
a) can be diagnosed by the presence of polycystic ovarian appearances on ultrasound alone.
b) the combination of anovulation and high testosterone is diagnostic
c) affects about 20% of the general population
d) always result in obesity, hirsuitism and infertility
e) when resulting in prolonged amenorrhoea increases the risk of endometrial cancer.
- 24.
Hyperandrogenaemia:
a) is the result of adrenal tumours in most cases
b) can result in increased oestrogen production through peripheral aromatisation
c) has been associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer in human epidemiological studies.
d) can be suspected when the sex hormone binding globulin concentration is reduced, despite androgen concentration being normal.
e) increases the risk of breast cancer by direct proliferative action on the mammary epithelium
- 25.
Breast cancer:
a) is more common in women with type II diabetes
b) has been confirmed to be associated with polycystic ovaries
c) in premenopausal women has been linked with obesity
d) has been associated with hyperinsulinaemia which can induce increased ovarian testosterone production
e) is more common in women with increased ovarian testosterone production
- 26.
Ovarian cancer relative risk:
a) Decreases by 20% for each 5 years of oral contraceptive use
b) Women with genetic predisposition to ovarian cancer development do not have any beneficial effect from oral contraceptive use
c) It is almost 50% for 15 years of oral contraceptive use
d) Remains stable at its reduced levels irrespective of the time passed from oral contraceptive last use
e) Is similar between the different histological types of tumours after oral contraceptives use
- 27.
Endometrial cancer relative risk:
a) Decreases by 50% for 4 years of oral contraceptive use and by 70% for 12 years of use
b) Begins to rise from its reduced levels after ceasing oral contraceptive use
c) A significant beneficial effect remains a long time after ceasing
d) It is similar between the different histological types
e) Begins to decrease with the onset of oral contraceptive use
- 28.
Which of the below can be considered as advantages of IVM over IVF for fertility preservation in cancer patients:
a) Shorter duration of treatment
b) Enabling oocyte retrieval at any time of the cycle
c) Eliminating the need for medication
d) Avoiding the increase in estrogen levels in patients with estrogen sensitive tumors
e) A reduced risk of metastases
- 29.
Based on currently available data, which treatment below is associated with a higher incidence of congenital abnormalities in children:
a) In vitro maturation
b) In vitro fertilization
c) Oocyte vitrification
d) Embryo vitrification
e) The incidence of congenital abnormalities is not increased following the above treatments.
- 30.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for cryopreservation of human oocytes and embryos:
a) Slow freezing is associated with lower survival rates for oocytes
b) Vitrification has a higher cryo-survival rate for human embryos
c) Oocyte vitrification provides higher pregnancy rates than slow freezing
d) Current data demonstrates a trend towards increased pregnancy rates following vitrification of embryos as compared with slow freezing
e) Improvements in pregnancy rates with vitrification vs slow freezing are statistically significant