and Janesh Gupta2
(1)
Fetal Medicine, Rainbow Hospitals, Hyderabad, Telangana, India
(2)
University of Birmingham Birmingham Women’s Hospital, Birmingham, UK
GYNONCO1
The most common cause of death from gynaecological malignancy in the developed world:
A.
Cervical cancer
B.
Endometrial cancer
C.
Ovarian cancer
D.
Vaginal cancer
E.
Vulval cancer
GYNONCO2
The risk of endometrial cancer is increased in the following condition:
A.
Asherman syndrome
B.
Behcet’s syndrome
C.
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
D.
Lynch syndrome
E.
Marfan’s syndrome
GYNONCO3
Oral contraceptive pills reduce the risk of endometrial cancer by:
A.
2–5 %
B.
5–10 %
C.
10–15 %
D.
40–50 %
E.
75 %
GYNONCO4
The incidence of occult ovarian cancers detected in women with BRCA mutation who undergo risk reducing salpingo-oophorectomy is:
A.
1–2 %
B.
5–7 %
C.
10–12 %
D.
25–30 %
E.
40–50 %
GYNONCO5
The following statements are true regarding borderline ovarian tumours except:
A.
Laparoscopic management is associated with possibilities of cyst rupture, development of port-site metastases and understaging of disease.
B.
No role for chemotherapy has been demonstrated for borderline ovarian tumours.
C.
Risk is not increased in BRCA mutations.
D.
The incidence of invasive disease at recurrence varies from 8 % to 73 %.
E.
The risk of recurrence varies between 0 % and 58 %.
GYNONCO6
Borderline tumours of the ovary are commonly associated with the following genetic mutation:
A.
Braf/Kras pathway
B.
BRCA
C.
MSH2
D.
PMS1/PMS2
E.
p53
GYNONCO7
The recommended first line of treatment in Lichen sclerosus is:
A.
Antifungals
B.
Local antibiotics
C.
Local anaesthetic creams
D.
Tacrolimus
E.
Ultrapotent corticosteroids
GYNONCO8
Lichen sclerosus commonly presents in the following age group:
A.
Adolescent
B.
Postmenopausal
C.
Premenarchal
D.
Premenopausal
E.
Reproductive age group
GYNONCO9
Flat-topped violaceous purpuric plaques on the vulva are characteristic of:
A.
Eccrine hamartoma
B.
Lichen planus
C.
Lichen sclerosus
D.
Lichen simplex
E.
Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia
GYNONCO10
A 50-year-old woman presented with 20 mm mass in the left breast associated with skin indentation. Which one of the following is the next most appropriate action?
A.
Breast conserving surgery.
B.
Chemotherapy is strongly recommended.
C.
Ductal carcinoma in situ is the underlying histological type.
D.
MRI.
E.
The clinical picture is that of locally advanced breast cancer; therefore, offer radiotherapy.
GYNONCO11
A 72-year-old woman was diagnosed with 10 mm, grade II, oestrogen receptor negative invasive left breast cancer. She had a palpable left axillary lymph node. Which one of the following is the next most appropriate action?
A.
Adjuvant tamoxifen should be given for 5 years.
B.
Axillary lymph node clearance.
C.
Chemotherapy is strongly recommended.
D.
Needle biopsy of the axillary node.
E.
Sentinel node biopsy and primary axillary surgery.
GYNONCO12
Which one of the following correctly describes the NHS breast cancer screening programme?
A.
Those aged 25–50 years, screen every 3 years, and those aged 50–64 years, screen every 5 years.
B.
Those aged 40–70 years, screen every 3 years.
C.
Those aged 45–65 years, screen every 3 years.
D.
Those aged 50–70 years, screen every 3 years.
E.
Those aged 60–80 years, screen every 2 years.
GYNONCO13
A 34-year-old woman presents with 6 weeks’ history of a lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. She has a family history of breast cancer. Clinical examination of the breast suggests a benign lump (E2 grading on examination). Which one of the following is the next most appropriate action?
A.
Breast cancer is a likely diagnosis.
B.
Fibroadenoma is the likely diagnosis.
C.
Mammogram should be a part of her triple assessment.
D.
The patient should be reassured and discharged.
E.
Ultrasound scan of the breast.
GYNONCO14
What percentage of patients in dedicated vulval cancers present with Lichen sclerosus?
