Challenges in Fertility Regulation – Multiple Choice Questions Only for Vol. 28, No. 6






  • 1.

    Which of the following statements about abortion in the first trimester is/are true?



    • a)

      Mifepristone is more effective when given as a 600mcg dose compared with a 200mcg dose.


    • b)

      Surgical vacuum aspirations performed at less than 7 weeks gestation are five times more likely to fail to remove the gestation sac than those carried out between 7 and 12 weeks.


    • c)

      Side-effects, such as vomiting and diarrhoea were reported more frequently by women receiving oral misoprostol compared with those who received vaginal misoprostol.


    • d)

      Misoprostol is more effective if administered orally than vaginally.


    • e)

      Products of conception should be routinely sent for histological examination.



  • 2.

    Which of the following is/are true about complications of abortions?



    • a)

      The risk of uterine perforation is 1 in 100.


    • b)

      There is a small increase in subsequent rates of breast cancer.


    • c)

      It is associated with ectopic pregnancy in future pregnancies.


    • d)

      Post-abortion infections are more common in the the presence of Chlamydia trachomatis , Neisseria gonorrhoea and bacterial vaginosis.


    • e)

      It is associated with infertility in subsequent pregnancies.



  • 3.

    Which is of the following is/are true about pre-abortion assessment of women?



    • a)

      Determination of the women’s ABO and Rhesus blood group is mandatory.


    • b)

      All women should have a risk assessment for venous thromboembolism.


    • c)

      Ultrasound scanning is an essential prerequisite of abortion in all cases.


    • d)

      Universal antibiotic prophylaxis at the time of abortion is associated with a reduction in the risk of subsequent infective morbidity by around 50%.


    • e)

      All women should undergo a risk assessment for sexually transmitted infections and be screened for them as appropriate.



  • 4.

    The following is/are recommended regimens for universal antibiotic prophylaxis for abortions:



    • a)

      Azithromycin 1 g orally on day of abortion, plus metronidazole 1 g rectally before or at the time of abortion.


    • b)

      Azithromycin 1g orally on day of abortion, plus metronidazole 800 mg orally before or at the time of abortion.


    • c)

      Doxycycline 100 mg on the day of abortion, plus metronidazole 800 mg orally prior to or at time of abortion.


    • d)

      Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days starting on the day of abortion, plus metronidazole 1 g rectally before or at the time of abortion.


    • e)

      Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days starting on the day of abortion, plus metronidazole 800 mg orally before or at the time of abortion.



  • 5.

    Which of the following is/are true about the acceptability of male contraception?



    • a)

      Few men regard male methods as worth developing.


    • b)

      There is a clear preference for oral administration across all countries surveyed.


    • c)

      Few women would be happy for their partner to take contraceptive responsibility.


    • d)

      A range of administration methods will optimise uptake.


    • e)

      Reversibility is a key requirement.



  • 6.

    Which of the following is/are true about hormonal methods tested so far?



    • a)

      Effective contraception requires azoospermia.


    • b)

      Rebound of spermatogenesis despite ongoing treatment can be an issue for contraceptive reliability.


    • c)

      Contraceptive efficacy is generally not as good as with condoms.


    • d)

      Adequate suppression generally takes several months to achieve.


    • e)

      Recovery is variable and incomplete.



  • 7.

    Which of the following is/are true about hormonal contraception for men?



    • a)

      The basis for this approach is complete suppression of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and but not luteinising hormone secretion.


    • b)

      Progestogens are effective suppressors of gonadotropins in men.


    • c)

      Side-effects generally reflect supraphysiological testosterone dosing.


    • d)

      GnRH antagonists provide an effective and convenient approach.


    • e)

      Non-suppression is related to identifiable pre-treatment characteristics.



  • 8.

    Which of the following is/are true about the non-hormonal approach to male contraception?



    • a)

      Leydig cell function is often affected.


    • b)

      Epididymal function offers many specific biochemical targets.


    • c)

      Reliable animal models for human epididymal function can be used to explore these approaches.


    • d)

      The process of meiosis is a promising target.


    • e)

      Sperm motility uses specific biochemical processes not found elsewhere in the body.



  • 9.

    The following is/are true regarding emergency contraception:



    • a)

      All hormonal methods of emergency contraception are not contraindicated in women who are smoking and older than 35 years of age.


    • b)

      If the levonorgestrel contraceptive pill fails and the woman gets pregnant, the pregnancy cannot be continued because of the likely adverse effects of the drug on the ongoing pregnancy.


    • c)

      Low dose mifepristone (10 or 25 mg) has the best efficacy amongst all existing options of hormonal emergency contraception.


    • d)

      The levonorgestrel intrauterine device has the best efficacy among all existing options of emergency contraception.


    • e)

      Over-the-counter or advanced provision of emergency contraceptive pills to women should be discouraged because it may encourage abuse and risky sexual behaviours, and compromise the compliance to regular contraceptive methods.



  • 10.

    Which of the following is/are true in relation to copper intrauterine devices (Cu-IUD)?



    • a)

      Cu-IUDs should only be inserted during menstruation.


    • b)

      Previous caesarean section is a contraindication


    • c)

      Gyne-fix is designed to cause less dysmenorrhea and fewer expulsions, especially in nulliparous women


    • d)

      The risk of pelvic infection 4 weeks after insertion is higher than the background risk for non-IUD users


    • e)

      Any Cu-IUD inserted in a woman over the age of 40 can be left in place until after the menopause



  • 11.

    Which of the following is/are true in relation to the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)?



    • a)

      The failure rate is comparable to female sterilisation


    • b)

      Users should be warned to expect PV spotting in the early months of use


    • c)

      It primarily works by inhibiting ovulation


    • d)

      The majority of women will have amenorrhea within 12 months of use


    • e)

      Is effective immediately if inserted in the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle



  • 12.

    Which of the following is/are true about intrauterine contraception (IUC)?



    • a)

      IUC is often a cause of post-coital bleeding


    • b)

      As soon as ‘lost threads’ are diagnosed, pregnancy must be excluded


    • c)

      The rate of ectopic pregnancy is higher in IUC users compared to non-users


    • d)

      IUC is contraindicated in diabetics


    • e)

      Women who have never had a baby should be discouraged from having IUC



  • 13.

    Which of the following is/are true in relation to emergency post-coital contraception?



    • a)

      A woman presents on day 18 of her 28-day cycle having had unprotected sex on days 7, 10 and 13 of her cycle. A Cu-IUD can be fitted.


    • b)

      A follow-up appointment should always be offered after emergency contraception is issued


    • c)

      A Cu-IUD fitted for emergency contraception can either be removed after the woman’s next menses or retained for long-term use


    • d)

      The LNG-IUS can be used as a method of emergency contraception


    • e)

      A woman presents on day 18 of her 28-day cycle having had unprotected sex on days 7, 10 and 13 of her cycle. LNG oral emergency contraception can be prescribed



  • 14.

    Which of the following is/are true in relation to IUC?



    • a)

      A previous ectopic pregnancy is an absolute contraindication to having a LNG-IUS


    • b)

      A previous history of pelvic inflammatory disease is a contraindication to Cu-IUD insertion


    • c)

      The failure rate of Cu-IUDs depends in part on the surface area of the copper which they contain


    • d)

      A Cu-IUD inserted when the woman is over 40 years of age should give her effective contraception until she is post-menopausal


    • e)

      The LNG-IUS has a 3- year license.



  • 15.

    Which of the following statement(s) about changes in menstrual bleeding patterns with injectables and implants is/are correct?



    • a)

      Most women experience irregular bleeding patterns with the use of injectables.


    • b)

      Implants induce less menstrual irregularity than combined hormonal methods.


    • c)

      Changes in menstrual bleeding patterns with injectables cannot be predicted for any specific user.


    • d)

      Changes in menstrual bleeding patterns with implant use are a main cause of method discontinuation.


    • e)

      Changes in menstrual bleeding patterns with injectables are a good predictor of the same occurring with the implant.



  • 16.

    Which of the following categories of women should not use injectables or implants?



    • a)

      Nulligravid women


    • b)

      Adolescents


    • c)

      Postpartum women


    • d)

      Women who wish to limit further childbearing.


    • e)

      Women with past Chlamydia infection



  • 17.

    Which of the following statement(s) about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hormonal contraceptive use is/are true, based on epidemiologic assessments of current data:



    • a)

      Use of combined oral contraceptives does not seem to increase HIV acquisition.


    • b)

      Use of injectable contraception may or may not increase the risk of HIV acquisition.


    • c)

      DMPA seems to increase risk of HIV disease progression in women living with HIV.


    • d)

      Some antiretroviral medications (e.g., efavirenz and nevirapine) may reduce implant effectiveness.


    • e)

      Some antiretroviral medications (e.g., efavirenz and nevirapine) may reduce injectable DMPA effectiveness.



  • 18.

    Which of the following is/are true about contraception after medically induced abortion?



    • a)

      It is not required for 21 days after taking mifepristone.


    • b)

      Starting the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after medical abortion can reduce the number of days of bleeding.


    • c)

      It should be delayed until a follow-up visit to confirm the success of the procedure.


    • d)

      It can be commenced as soon as mifepristone has been taken.


    • e)

      Mifepristone interacts with hormonal contraceptives in the first month and may reduce their efficacy.



  • 19.

    Which of the following is/are true about insertion of the intrauterine device or intrauterine system at first trimester surgical abortion?



    • a)

      It is associated with a 20% risk of expulsion.


    • b)

      It is associated with similar rates of infection than at other times.


    • c)

      It is associated with higher rates of perforation than at other times.


    • d)

      It is associated with similar rates of uptake than if the insertion is scheduled for a later date.


    • e)

      It is associated with greater bleeding than at other times.



  • 20.

    Postpartum insertion of the progestogen only implant has been shown to:



    • a)

      Adversely affect the composition of breast milk.


    • b)

      Increase the time to lactation interval.


    • c)

      Have a greater effect on vaginal bleeding pattern if inserted immediately postpartum than if inserted at a later stage.


    • d)

      Be associated with high continuation rates amongst young mothers at 1 year.


    • e)

      Prevent rapid repeat pregnancy in young mothers.



  • 21.

    Which of the following contraceptive methods should not be offered to women living with HIV who are not clinically well?



    • a)

      Combined oral contraceptive


    • b)

      Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)


    • c)

      Intra-uterine device


    • d)

      Contraceptive patch


    • e)

      Progesterone only pill



  • 22.

    Which of the following contraceptive methods is/are least likely to interact with antiretrovirals (ARVs)?



    • a)

      Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)


    • b)

      Copper intra-uterine device


    • c)

      Combined oral contraceptive


    • d)

      Levonorgestrel progestin-only contraceptive implant


    • e)

      Condoms



  • 23.

    Which of the following contraceptive methods is/are recommended for use by HIV sero-discordant couples to prevent onward HIV transmission?



    • a)

      Condoms, male or female, with nonoxynol-9


    • b)

      Condoms, male or female


    • c)

      Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)


    • d)

      Female sterilization


    • e)

      Male sterilization



  • 24.

    The following is/are true regarding the risk of pelvic infection after insertion of an IUD?



    • a)

      It is highest during the first 20 days after insertion


    • b)

      It is constant for the first year and then decreases in subsequent years


    • c)

      It is highest in Africa compared to other countries


    • d)

      It is lowest in Western Europe compared to other geographical areas


    • e)

      It is inversely associated with age



  • 25.

    Which of the following is/are correct concerning emergency contraception?



    • a)

      The most effective emergency contraceptive is the Yuzpe-method.


    • b)

      A Copper IUD can be inserted up to 5 days after the expected date of ovulation.


    • c)

      Ulipristal acetate (ellaOne ® ) 30mg is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) and is a very powerful in delaying ovulation and is thus effective for up to 120 hours.


    • d)

      Levonorgestrel 1.5mg is given as a single dose or in two doses of 0.75mg twelve hours apart.


    • e)

      Levonorgestrel 1.5mg is thought to delay ovulation if taken on day 18 of a 28 day cycle.



  • 26.

    Which of the following contraceptive methods is/are long-acting reversible?



    • a)

      Combined hormonal oral contraceptives


    • b)

      Subdermal contraceptive implants


    • c)

      Transdermal contraceptive patch


    • d)

      DMPA injections


    • e)

      LNG-IUS



  • 27.

    Which of the following statements about the contraceptive injectable Depo-Provera is/are true?



    • a)

      Depo-Provera can reduce heavy menstrual bleeding in older users.


    • b)

      Depo-Provera should be avoided by women in their forties because of the risk of post-menopausal fractures.


    • c)

      Depo-Provera suppresses the rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level, which occurs when women become menopausal.


    • d)

      Depo-Provera would be suitable for contraception for a woman of 45 years with a past history of a possible deep vein thrombosis.


    • e)

      Depo-Provera is associated with amenorrhoea rates of 40% after 1 year of use.



  • 28.

    Combined hormonal contraception (COC) offers which of the following non-contraceptive benefit(s) to peri-menopausal women?



    • a)

      Osteoporotic fracture prevention.


    • b)

      A lower risk of cervical cancer compared to non-users.


    • c)

      Reduced risk of breast cancer in women carrying the BRCA 2 mutation.


    • d)

      Protection against ovarian cancer which lasts into the post-menopause.


    • e)

      Treatment of dysfunctional peri-menopausal bleeding.



  • 29.

    Which of the following is/are true about stopping contraception?



    • a)

      CHC should be continued until withdrawal bleeds stop.


    • b)

      If inserted after the age of 35 years, a copper intrauterine device remains in situ unchanged until the menopause.


    • c)

      An IUS inserted in a woman of 42 years does not need to be changed until removal at the time of the menopause.


    • d)

      A woman with a sub-dermal contraceptive implant must change to another method at the age of 50 years.


    • e)

      The progestogen-only pill is safe to continue until the age of 55 years.



  • 30.

    Which of the following is/are true about safe prescribing contraception for an older woman?



    • a)

      The combined transdermal contraceptive patch is a safer option than combined oral contraception in respect of VTE.


    • b)

      The vaginal ring offers no benefit in terms of reduced risk of arterial disease compared to combined oral contraception.


    • c)

      Combined oral contraceptive preparations containing natural oestradiol esters rather than ethinylestradiol have less effect on breast cancer risk.


    • d)

      Inserting a subdermal implant is contraindicated in a woman of 45 years who has uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of arterial disease.


    • e)

      Progestogen only contraception can be safely used in women with a history of breast cancer.



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Nov 8, 2017 | Posted by in OBSTETRICS | Comments Off on Challenges in Fertility Regulation – Multiple Choice Questions Only for Vol. 28, No. 6

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