Adolescent and Paediatric Gynaecology Multiple Choice Questions for Vol. 24, No. 2






  • 1.

    In the presence of a vulvovaginits with predominant isolation of Streptococcus pyogenes , recurrent after oral ampicillin treatment, the following option(s) should be considered



    • a)

      check the child and the parents for pharyngeal colonization


    • b)

      take a specimen from the rectum of the child for culture


    • c)

      add a short antibiotic course with a non beta-lactamase sensitive drug


    • d)

      prescribe ceftriazone 150 mg parenterally


    • e)

      use topical clindamicin



  • 2.

    The diagnosis of warts in the ano-genital region of a 3 year-old child calls for careful evaluation of the possibility of sexual abuse, even where other modes of transmission are proved. What would you consider useful in this situation?



    • a)

      speak immediately and clearly with the mother and the father of the child about this possibility


    • b)

      ask the child directly


    • c)

      discreetly question the mother about where her daughter lives during the day and who are the preferential caregivers


    • d)

      ask the mother about the possibility of a HPV genital infection during pregnancy or the presence of skin warts on her hands


    • e)

      perform a HPV typing test



  • 3.

    The following is/are true concerning the 46XY female



    • a)

      In complete AIS the testes produce normal amounts of testosterone


    • b)

      In complete AIS testosterone cannot be converted to dihydrotesteosterone


    • c)

      In 5 α reductase deficiency there is an increased risk of malignancy in the gonad


    • d)

      In 5 α reductase deficiency there is more than one isoform of the enzyme


    • e)

      In partial AIS the testes produce increased amounts of testosterone to overcome the resistance



  • 4.

    Which cases require early gonadectomy because of the risk of virilisation?



    • a)

      Swyer syndrome


    • b)

      Complete AIS


    • c)

      5 α reductase deficiency


    • d)

      Partial AIS


    • e)

      Frasier syndrome



  • 5.

    Estrogens have a principally



    • a)

      positive effect on the osteogenesis


    • b)

      proliferative effect on the epithelium of the uterus, tubes, vagina and urinary tract


    • c)

      negative effect on the cardiovascular system


    • d)

      negative effect on the CNS


    • e)

      vasodilator effect



  • 6.

    Hormonal Developmental Therapy (HDT) in childhood and adolescence



    • a)

      must be applied in absolute estrogen deficiency states


    • b)

      should be finished as soon as secondary sexual characteristics have been developed


    • c)

      need increasing doses individually


    • d)

      must be started with an estrogen/progestagen combination


    • e)

      has identical goals to HRT



  • 7.

    Long-term HDT in women suffering from absolute deficiency of estrogens



    • (a)

      is needed to maintain the appropriate stages of sexual development and for prevention of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease


    • (b)

      has no proven risks


    • (c)

      should be finished on request of the patient


    • (d)

      when finished is often followed by a pseudo-menopause in hypogonadal women


    • (e)

      is needed just as much in cases of relative deficiency of estrogens



  • 8.

    Clinical signs of hyperandrogenism include



    • a)

      Acne


    • b)

      Hirsutism


    • c)

      Clitoromegaly


    • d)

      Vaginal aplasia


    • e)

      Decreased muscular mass



  • 9.

    Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is defined as a non-organic and reversible disorder and may be accompanied by



    • a)

      Lower mean frequency of LH pulses


    • b)

      Complete absence of LH pulsatility


    • c)

      Normal-appearing LH and GnRH secretion pattern


    • d)

      Streak ovaries


    • e)

      Higher mean frequency of LH pulses



  • 10.

    Which of the following is/are true regarding hyperprolactinaemia in adolescents?



    • a)

      It is associated with decreased estradiol concentrations


    • b)

      It usually presents with amenorrhea


    • c)

      It has a frequency of about 7% in adolescents


    • d)

      The severity of the menstrual disorders do not correlate with the prolactin levels


    • e)

      Galactorrhoea is always present



  • 11.

    Type II autoimmune polyglandular syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:



    • a)

      Adrenal insufficiency


    • b)

      Autoimmune thyroid disease


    • c)

      Hyperprolactinemia


    • d)

      Premature Ovarian Failure


    • e)

      Type I diabetes mellitus



  • 12.

    The following statement(s) concerning the pathogenesis of PCOS is/are true



    • a)

      There is an intrinsic ovarian theca cell defect leading to androgen overproduction


    • b)

      There is impaired hypothalamic-pituitary sensitivity to ovarian steroid feedback


    • c)

      There is a primary defect of gonadotropin synthesis leading to preferentially increased LH synthesis


    • d)

      The increased LH concentrations may result from the androgen-induced impairment of hypothalamic sensitivity to ovarian steroid feedback


    • e)

      It results from a primary hypothalamic defect leading to increased GnRH pulse generator frequency



  • 13.

    The estimated risk of developing PCOS in girls with premature pubarche is:



    • a)

      5–10%


    • b)

      15–20%


    • c)

      30–40%


    • d)

      45–55%


    • e)

      60–65%



  • 14.

    The risk of developing PCOS appears to be higher in girls with



    • a)

      ordinary premature adrenarche


    • b)

      exaggerated premature adrenarche


    • c)

      atypical central precocious pubarche


    • d)

      premature thelarche


    • e)

      delayed adrenarche



  • 15.

    Which of the following factor(s) has/have been implicated in the pathogenesis of PCOS



    • a)

      Low birth weight


    • b)

      High birth weight


    • c)

      Intrauterine androgen excess


    • d)

      In vitro fertilization


    • e)

      Maternal diabetes



  • 16.

    Which type of diet may exacerbate the reproductive and metabolic aberrations of PCOS?



    • a)

      Calorie excess


    • b)

      High-AGE diet


    • c)

      Low-AGE-diet


    • d)

      High protein content


    • e)

      Low calorie intake



  • 17.

    The term “Premature adrenarche” includes the ordinary form and the exaggerated form, which are distinguished by serum androgen levels, as follows:



    • a)

      The exaggerated form is indicated by DHEA-S levels above 185 μg/dl and/or androstenedione levels exceeding the range of 75–99 ng/dl


    • b)

      The exaggerated form is indicated by androstenedione levels exceeding the range of 75–99 ng/dl


    • c)

      The ordinary form is indicated by DHEA-S levels in the range of 40–130 μg/dl


    • d)

      The ordinary form is indicated by DHEA-S levels less than 40 μg/dl


    • e)

      The ordinary form is indicated by androstenedione levels exceeding the range of 75–99 ng/dl



  • 18.

    Vaginal aplasia is associated with the following



    • a)

      Male pseudo-hermaphroditism


    • b)

      Female pseudo-hermaphroditism


    • c)

      Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome


    • d)

      McCune–Albright syndrome


    • e)

      CNS tumours



  • 19.

    Male pseudo-hermaphroditism is classified to the following subtype(s) according to etiological factors:



    • a)

      testicular hyper-responsiveness to hCG and LH


    • b)

      defective testosterone synthesis


    • c)

      end-organ hyper-responsiveness to androgen


    • d)

      defective testicular organogenesis


    • e)

      defects in anti-Müllerian hormone.



  • 20.

    The following is/are true concerning female pseudo-hermaphroditism:



    • a)

      patients have 46 XX karyotype


    • b)

      patients have normal ovaries


    • c)

      the degree of genital ambiguity is highly variable


    • d)

      virilization is caused by excessive production of only maternal androgens


    • e)

      hyperandrogenaemia occurs due to enzymatic defects in steroid synthesis



  • 21.

    The following is/are true of McCune-Albright syndrome:



    • a)

      it is caused by mutations in the GNAS2 gene


    • b)

      it is inherited in a Mendelian fashion


    • c)

      early sexual development occurs more commonly in girls than boys


    • d)

      bony fractures are another feature of the syndrome


    • e)

      café-au-lait spots are a classic feature of the syndrome



  • 22.

    Women with MRKH syndrome may present with the following



    • a)

      Primary amenorrhea


    • b)

      46,XX karyotype


    • c)

      Male type external genitalia


    • d)

      Streak ovaries


    • e)

      Uterus is absent or rudimentary



  • 23.

    All the following is/are surgical techniques for neo-vagina creation:



    • a)

      Vecchietti procedure


    • b)

      McIndoe’s method


    • c)

      Williams’ technique


    • d)

      Frank’s technique


    • e)

      Creatsas’ vaginoplasty



  • 24.

    Complications of Creatsas’ vaginoplasty include



    • a)

      Hematoma


    • b)

      Hematometra


    • c)

      Wound opening


    • d)

      Pyosalpinx


    • e)

      Wound infection.



  • 25.

    The following statement(s) regarding surgical correction of uterine anomalies is/are true:



    • a)

      Rudimentary uterine horns containing endometrial tissue should be removed.


    • b)

      Septoplasty in patients with uterine septa may improve implantation.


    • c)

      Strassman reunification is the first step to maximize obstetric outcomes in patients with uterine didelphis.


    • d)

      When performing septoplasty in the case of a uterine septum, the cervical portion of the septum should always be removed.


    • e)

      Surgical correction of an obstructed mullerian anomaly serves as a treatment modality for endometriosis.



  • 26.

    The following aetiologies might explain the jeopardized obstetric outcomes associated with mullerian anomalies



    • a)

      Abnormal uterine vasculature


    • b)

      Decreased muscularity of the cervix


    • c)

      Malpresentation secondary to abnormal uterine configuration


    • d)

      Diminished gestational capacity leading to increased risk of preterm labor


    • e)

      Genetic mutations associated with patient’s who have mullerian anomalies



  • 27.

    The following statement(s) is/are true regarding rudimentary uterine horns



    • a)

      Rudimenentary uterine horns should always be removed


    • b)

      The endometrial cavity associated with a rudimentary uterine horn may or may not be in communication with the dominant endometrial cavity


    • c)

      Obstructed rudimentary horns are often associated with retrograde menses, pain, and endometriosis


    • d)

      Ectopic pregnancy can occur in a rudimentary horn which does not communicate with the dominant uterine cavity


    • e)

      The gold standard for diagnosis aberrant uterine anatomy is laparoscopy



  • 28.

    Which of the following options would you consider for the treatment of osteopenia in a girl who has almost completely recovered normal weight after a severe form of anorexia nervosa?



    • a)

      moderate physical activity and nutritional monitoring


    • b)

      oral contraceptives


    • c)

      calcium supplements


    • d)

      oral vitamin D supplements


    • e)

      bisphosphonates



  • 29.

    Which of the following conditions may be associated with a 16 year-old girl with BMI = 30 Kg/m 2 and oligomenorrhea?



    • a)

      a road accident with brain injury


    • b)

      the prolonged use of topiramate


    • c)

      complete physical inactivity for almost 5 months


    • d)

      overweight father and grandfather


    • e)

      transient diabetes insipidus



  • 30.

    On comparing international information on the evolution of adolescent Fecundity and the Prevalence of use of contraceptives, we see that



    • a)

      The countries with the higher fecundity rates in adolescents of 15 to 19 years of age, always have a prevalence of contraceptive use of below 40%.


    • b)

      The countries with lower fecundity rates in adolescents of 15 to 18 years of age, always have a prevalence of contraceptive use of over 70%.


    • c)

      Adolescent pregnancy rates in the past 13 years have fallen more in the less developed regions in the planet.


    • d)

      Countries in most of the Regions of the world have higher rates of adolescent fecundity in association with lower rates contraceptive use.


    • e)

      Available data establishes that there is no relationship between the prevalence of contraceptive use and Adolescent Fecundity.



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Nov 9, 2017 | Posted by in OBSTETRICS | Comments Off on Adolescent and Paediatric Gynaecology Multiple Choice Questions for Vol. 24, No. 2

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