- 1.
In the presence of a vulvovaginits with predominant isolation of Streptococcus pyogenes , recurrent after oral ampicillin treatment, the following option(s) should be considered
- a)
check the child and the parents for pharyngeal colonization
- b)
take a specimen from the rectum of the child for culture
- c)
add a short antibiotic course with a non beta-lactamase sensitive drug
- d)
prescribe ceftriazone 150 mg parenterally
- e)
use topical clindamicin
- a)
- 2.
The diagnosis of warts in the ano-genital region of a 3 year-old child calls for careful evaluation of the possibility of sexual abuse, even where other modes of transmission are proved. What would you consider useful in this situation?
- a)
speak immediately and clearly with the mother and the father of the child about this possibility
- b)
ask the child directly
- c)
discreetly question the mother about where her daughter lives during the day and who are the preferential caregivers
- d)
ask the mother about the possibility of a HPV genital infection during pregnancy or the presence of skin warts on her hands
- e)
perform a HPV typing test
- a)
- 3.
The following is/are true concerning the 46XY female
- a)
In complete AIS the testes produce normal amounts of testosterone
- b)
In complete AIS testosterone cannot be converted to dihydrotesteosterone
- c)
In 5 α reductase deficiency there is an increased risk of malignancy in the gonad
- d)
In 5 α reductase deficiency there is more than one isoform of the enzyme
- e)
In partial AIS the testes produce increased amounts of testosterone to overcome the resistance
- a)
- 4.
Which cases require early gonadectomy because of the risk of virilisation?
- a)
Swyer syndrome
- b)
Complete AIS
- c)
5 α reductase deficiency
- d)
Partial AIS
- e)
Frasier syndrome
- a)
- 5.
Estrogens have a principally
- a)
positive effect on the osteogenesis
- b)
proliferative effect on the epithelium of the uterus, tubes, vagina and urinary tract
- c)
negative effect on the cardiovascular system
- d)
negative effect on the CNS
- e)
vasodilator effect
- a)
- 6.
Hormonal Developmental Therapy (HDT) in childhood and adolescence
- a)
must be applied in absolute estrogen deficiency states
- b)
should be finished as soon as secondary sexual characteristics have been developed
- c)
need increasing doses individually
- d)
must be started with an estrogen/progestagen combination
- e)
has identical goals to HRT
- a)
- 7.
Long-term HDT in women suffering from absolute deficiency of estrogens
- (a)
is needed to maintain the appropriate stages of sexual development and for prevention of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease
- (b)
has no proven risks
- (c)
should be finished on request of the patient
- (d)
when finished is often followed by a pseudo-menopause in hypogonadal women
- (e)
is needed just as much in cases of relative deficiency of estrogens
- (a)
- 8.
Clinical signs of hyperandrogenism include
- a)
Acne
- b)
Hirsutism
- c)
Clitoromegaly
- d)
Vaginal aplasia
- e)
Decreased muscular mass
- a)
- 9.
Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is defined as a non-organic and reversible disorder and may be accompanied by
- a)
Lower mean frequency of LH pulses
- b)
Complete absence of LH pulsatility
- c)
Normal-appearing LH and GnRH secretion pattern
- d)
Streak ovaries
- e)
Higher mean frequency of LH pulses
- a)
- 10.
Which of the following is/are true regarding hyperprolactinaemia in adolescents?
- a)
It is associated with decreased estradiol concentrations
- b)
It usually presents with amenorrhea
- c)
It has a frequency of about 7% in adolescents
- d)
The severity of the menstrual disorders do not correlate with the prolactin levels
- e)
Galactorrhoea is always present
- a)
- 11.
Type II autoimmune polyglandular syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:
- a)
Adrenal insufficiency
- b)
Autoimmune thyroid disease
- c)
Hyperprolactinemia
- d)
Premature Ovarian Failure
- e)
Type I diabetes mellitus
- a)
- 12.
The following statement(s) concerning the pathogenesis of PCOS is/are true
- a)
There is an intrinsic ovarian theca cell defect leading to androgen overproduction
- b)
There is impaired hypothalamic-pituitary sensitivity to ovarian steroid feedback
- c)
There is a primary defect of gonadotropin synthesis leading to preferentially increased LH synthesis
- d)
The increased LH concentrations may result from the androgen-induced impairment of hypothalamic sensitivity to ovarian steroid feedback
- e)
It results from a primary hypothalamic defect leading to increased GnRH pulse generator frequency
- a)
- 13.
The estimated risk of developing PCOS in girls with premature pubarche is:
- a)
5–10%
- b)
15–20%
- c)
30–40%
- d)
45–55%
- e)
60–65%
- a)
- 14.
The risk of developing PCOS appears to be higher in girls with
- a)
ordinary premature adrenarche
- b)
exaggerated premature adrenarche
- c)
atypical central precocious pubarche
- d)
premature thelarche
- e)
delayed adrenarche
- a)
- 15.
Which of the following factor(s) has/have been implicated in the pathogenesis of PCOS
- a)
Low birth weight
- b)
High birth weight
- c)
Intrauterine androgen excess
- d)
In vitro fertilization
- e)
Maternal diabetes
- a)
- 16.
Which type of diet may exacerbate the reproductive and metabolic aberrations of PCOS?
- a)
Calorie excess
- b)
High-AGE diet
- c)
Low-AGE-diet
- d)
High protein content
- e)
Low calorie intake
- a)
- 17.
The term “Premature adrenarche” includes the ordinary form and the exaggerated form, which are distinguished by serum androgen levels, as follows:
- a)
The exaggerated form is indicated by DHEA-S levels above 185 μg/dl and/or androstenedione levels exceeding the range of 75–99 ng/dl
- b)
The exaggerated form is indicated by androstenedione levels exceeding the range of 75–99 ng/dl
- c)
The ordinary form is indicated by DHEA-S levels in the range of 40–130 μg/dl
- d)
The ordinary form is indicated by DHEA-S levels less than 40 μg/dl
- e)
The ordinary form is indicated by androstenedione levels exceeding the range of 75–99 ng/dl
- a)
- 18.
Vaginal aplasia is associated with the following
- a)
Male pseudo-hermaphroditism
- b)
Female pseudo-hermaphroditism
- c)
Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome
- d)
McCune–Albright syndrome
- e)
CNS tumours
- a)
- 19.
Male pseudo-hermaphroditism is classified to the following subtype(s) according to etiological factors:
- a)
testicular hyper-responsiveness to hCG and LH
- b)
defective testosterone synthesis
- c)
end-organ hyper-responsiveness to androgen
- d)
defective testicular organogenesis
- e)
defects in anti-Müllerian hormone.
- a)
- 20.
The following is/are true concerning female pseudo-hermaphroditism:
- a)
patients have 46 XX karyotype
- b)
patients have normal ovaries
- c)
the degree of genital ambiguity is highly variable
- d)
virilization is caused by excessive production of only maternal androgens
- e)
hyperandrogenaemia occurs due to enzymatic defects in steroid synthesis
- a)
- 21.
The following is/are true of McCune-Albright syndrome:
- a)
it is caused by mutations in the GNAS2 gene
- b)
it is inherited in a Mendelian fashion
- c)
early sexual development occurs more commonly in girls than boys
- d)
bony fractures are another feature of the syndrome
- e)
café-au-lait spots are a classic feature of the syndrome
- a)
- 22.
Women with MRKH syndrome may present with the following
- a)
Primary amenorrhea
- b)
46,XX karyotype
- c)
Male type external genitalia
- d)
Streak ovaries
- e)
Uterus is absent or rudimentary
- a)
- 23.
All the following is/are surgical techniques for neo-vagina creation:
- a)
Vecchietti procedure
- b)
McIndoe’s method
- c)
Williams’ technique
- d)
Frank’s technique
- e)
Creatsas’ vaginoplasty
- a)
- 24.
Complications of Creatsas’ vaginoplasty include
- a)
Hematoma
- b)
Hematometra
- c)
Wound opening
- d)
Pyosalpinx
- e)
Wound infection.
- a)
- 25.
The following statement(s) regarding surgical correction of uterine anomalies is/are true:
- a)
Rudimentary uterine horns containing endometrial tissue should be removed.
- b)
Septoplasty in patients with uterine septa may improve implantation.
- c)
Strassman reunification is the first step to maximize obstetric outcomes in patients with uterine didelphis.
- d)
When performing septoplasty in the case of a uterine septum, the cervical portion of the septum should always be removed.
- e)
Surgical correction of an obstructed mullerian anomaly serves as a treatment modality for endometriosis.
- a)
- 26.
The following aetiologies might explain the jeopardized obstetric outcomes associated with mullerian anomalies
- a)
Abnormal uterine vasculature
- b)
Decreased muscularity of the cervix
- c)
Malpresentation secondary to abnormal uterine configuration
- d)
Diminished gestational capacity leading to increased risk of preterm labor
- e)
Genetic mutations associated with patient’s who have mullerian anomalies
- a)
- 27.
The following statement(s) is/are true regarding rudimentary uterine horns
- a)
Rudimenentary uterine horns should always be removed
- b)
The endometrial cavity associated with a rudimentary uterine horn may or may not be in communication with the dominant endometrial cavity
- c)
Obstructed rudimentary horns are often associated with retrograde menses, pain, and endometriosis
- d)
Ectopic pregnancy can occur in a rudimentary horn which does not communicate with the dominant uterine cavity
- e)
The gold standard for diagnosis aberrant uterine anatomy is laparoscopy
- a)
- 28.
Which of the following options would you consider for the treatment of osteopenia in a girl who has almost completely recovered normal weight after a severe form of anorexia nervosa?
- a)
moderate physical activity and nutritional monitoring
- b)
oral contraceptives
- c)
calcium supplements
- d)
oral vitamin D supplements
- e)
bisphosphonates
- a)
- 29.
Which of the following conditions may be associated with a 16 year-old girl with BMI = 30 Kg/m 2 and oligomenorrhea?
- a)
a road accident with brain injury
- b)
the prolonged use of topiramate
- c)
complete physical inactivity for almost 5 months
- d)
overweight father and grandfather
- e)
transient diabetes insipidus
- a)
- 30.
On comparing international information on the evolution of adolescent Fecundity and the Prevalence of use of contraceptives, we see that
- a)
The countries with the higher fecundity rates in adolescents of 15 to 19 years of age, always have a prevalence of contraceptive use of below 40%.
- b)
The countries with lower fecundity rates in adolescents of 15 to 18 years of age, always have a prevalence of contraceptive use of over 70%.
- c)
Adolescent pregnancy rates in the past 13 years have fallen more in the less developed regions in the planet.
- d)
Countries in most of the Regions of the world have higher rates of adolescent fecundity in association with lower rates contraceptive use.
- e)
Available data establishes that there is no relationship between the prevalence of contraceptive use and Adolescent Fecundity.
- a)